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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 18.06.2025 00:25

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Who are the actual "science deniers": people who wait until vaccines are proven effective, or people who believe that there are more than two genders?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why don't younger men like older women?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.